ignou solve assignment for health science NURSING FOUNDATION
Assignment -1 (Block 1 & 2) (Tutor Marked)
Programme Code: B.Sc.N (PB)
Course Code: BNS-101
Assignment Code: BNS 101/ TMA-1/2015
Maximum Marks - 100
Last date of submission: July 31, 2015 Note: This Assignment has three parts - Part A, B and C
Part A consists of two long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consists of six short answer questions. Each question carries 10 marks.
Part C consists of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2 ½ marks Part - A a. Define nursing process.
b. List down the phases of nursing process. Select a patient from your clinical field; collect the
subjective and objective data, make nursing diagnosis, prioritize the needs, plan and implement
the nursing care using nursing process approach.(2+3+10=15)
2. a. Define nursing standards.
b. List purposes of developing nursing standards.
c. Describe various types of standards giving examples from nursing field.(2+4+9=15)
Part - B
3. a. Explain changing concepts of health. Support your answer with suitable examples.
b. Describe any two models of Health and illness.(5+5=10)
4. Explain the self care deficit theory by Dorothy Orem, Support your answer with example from
your clinical field.(7+3=10)
5. a. Explain the concept of stress and stressors.
b. Discuss stress management techniques which you will suggest to your patients and nurses to
reduce stress while in the hospital. Support your answer with examples.(3+7=10) a. Define interpersonal relationship.
b. Discuss the difference between therapeutic and social relationship.
c. Explain the role of a nurse in improving the interpersonal relationship.(2+5+3=10)
7. a. Discuss the significance of studying ethics in nursing.
b. Explain with help of example the legal implications in nursing faced by you while working in
hospital / community.(3+7=10)
8. a. Discuss the concept of holistic health.
b. Describe the dimensions of holistic health with examples from community setting.(3+7=10) Part - C Place a tick mark ( ) against the most appropriate answer given under each statement.(½x5=2½)
a) Health belief model addresses:
i) Relationship between person’s belief & behaviour
ii) Relationship between person’s needs & behaviour
iii) Severity of disease
iv) High level wellness
b) Hospice institutions are meant for:
i) Chronic patients
ii) Acutely ill patients
iii) Terminally ill patients.
iv) Long term stay patients.
c) Functional nursing refers to/ is :
i) Professional nursing
ii) Completion of nursing routines
iii) Concerned with specific nursing routines.
iv) Patient centered care. Accreditation refers to one of the following:
i) Making assessment
ii) Meeting predetermined standards
iii) Making care cost effective
iv) Ensuring Quality.
e) One of the following indicates improvement of health status:
i) Expectation of life
ii) Infant mortality rate
iii) Crude death rate
iv) Morbidity indicator
10. Match the items given in Column A with those given in Column B: Column A Column B
a) Negligence performed in professional practice i) Parole
b) Pain relief and comfort measures for cancer patient ii) Battery
c) Mentally ill patient goes on leave iii) Spiritual Care
d) Intentional act that is harmful iv) Malapractice
e) Concerns, choices around health care issues e.g. v) Palliative Care
individual rights versus societal rights vi) Patient leaving hospital without
medical advice
vii) Bioethic Fill in the blanks:(½x5=2½)
a) Publication of false statement about individual which damages person’s image is known as
……………………….
b) Standards which describe ideal nursing practice are known
as……………………….standards
c) Painless death is also known as…………………………..
d) Audit concerned with infrastructure, resources and health personnel is known as……….audit.
e) Systematic way of looking at the world in order to describe, predict and explain is known as
……………………
12. Place tick mark () against ‘T’ if you consider the statement as true and ‘F’ if you consider the
statement as false:(½x5=2½)
a) In hilly area one sub center is for 5000 population. (T/F)
b) Community development programme was launched in 1952. (T/F)
c) Community participation is one of the principles of primary health care. (T/F)
d) Health Survey and Planning Committee is also known as Bhore Committee. (T/F)
e) Minimum need programme was introduced during fifth five year plan. (T/F) NURSING FOUNDATION
Assignment -2 (Block 3 & 4) (Tutor Marked)
Programme Code: B.Sc.N (PB)
Course Code: BNS-101
Assignment Code: BNS 101/ TMA-2/2015
Maximum Marks - 100
Last date of submission: August 31, 2015 Note: This Assignment has three parts - Part A, B and C
Part A consists of two long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consists of six short answer questions. Each question carries 10 marks.
Part C consists of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2 ½ marks Part - A a. Explain the concept of monitoring and evaluation.
b. Ennumerate elements of evaluation process.
c. Discuss the steps you would take to evaluate nursing services in your community.
d. Describe the role of Community Health Nurse in Monitoring and Evaluation.
(3+3+6+3=15)
2. a. List the basic principles to be followed during care of patient with minor ailments.
b. Describe the common conditions affecting the following:
i. Cardio Vascular System
ii. Digestive System
c. Explain the nursing measures you will take for patient with chest pain and diarrhea.(4+4+4+3=15) Part- B Describe the health education methods you will adopt to educate school children and people
in resettlement areas.(10)
4. a) Explain the concept of essential drugs.
b) Describe the role of a nurse in estimating drug requirements, issuing and controlling the use of
drugs.(3+7=10)
5. a) Define primary health care.
b) List the key elements of primary health care.
c) Discuss the role of a nurse in promoting primary health care.(2+3+5=10)
6. a) List the causes of maternal morbidity and mortality.
b) Discuss the health assessment and care you will plan for woman during pregnancy(6+4=10)
7. a. Describe the characteristics of health care services.
b. Explain the levels of health care services and examples of health care agencies providing care
at each level.(6+4=10)
8. a) List the locally endemic disease in your community and describe any two diseases.
b) Explain role of nurse in dealing with locally endemic diseases.(3+4+3=10) Part - C Place a tick mark () against the most appropriate answer given under each statement.
(½×5 = 2½)
a) BCG vaccine is given as:
i) 0.1 ml intradermal
ii) 0.5 ml intradermal
iii) 0.1 ml subcutaneous
iv) 0.5 ml subcutaneous
b) Vaccine is prepared from all of the following agents except:
i) Toxoids
ii) Antibiotics
iii) Live, attenuated organisms
iv) Killed organisms.
c) B.C.G Vaccine protects against:
i) Beri-Beri
ii) Rubella
iii) Tuberculosis
iv) Whooping cough
d) Normal weight gain in pregnancy is:
i) 12-14 kg
ii) 11-12 kg
iii) 8-10 kg
iv) 6-7 kg The dose of chloroquine for presumptive treatment of malaria is;
i) 150 mg per week.
ii) 300 mg per week.
iii) 450 mg per week
iv) 600 mg per week
10. Match the Statement given in Column A with the terms given in Column B: (½×5 = 2½)
Column A Column B
a) Components of health care services i) 2 to 10 degree
b) Alma Ata Declaration in 1978 defines ii) Monitoring and evaluation
c) Health of community is affected by other iii) Consumer, provider, delivery
sectors as well as system
d) A process to observe and assess the progress of iv) Primary health care
planned programme
e) Temperature of storing TT vaccine v) Inter-sectoral co-ordination
vi) Socio-economic indicators
vii) 10 to 15 degree.
11. Fill in the blanks: (½×5 = 2½)
a) Common method of purification of water is known as…………………
b) Water is boiled for 5 to 10 minutes to kill…………………...
c) Hand flush latrine is also known as……………………………………….
d) Sewage purification takes place in…………stages.
e) Measles vaccine is available in…………..form. Place tick mark () against ‘T’ if you consider the statement as true and ‘F’ if you consider the
statement as false. (½×5 = 2½)
a) The term ‘Basic Health Service’ was used by WHO/UNICEF in 1948. (T/F)
b) Quality of nursing is the degree of standard of excellence of care provided. (T/F)
c) Soreness of mouth often occurs due to deficiency of Riboflavin (T/F)
d) Health for all means health care services within reach of every individual. (T/F)
e) Koplik’s spots appear in goitre (T/F) APPLIED SCIENCES
Assignment – 1( Block 1 & 2) Tutor Marked
(BIOCHEMISTRY and BIOPHYSICS)
Programme Code : B.Sc.N (PB)
Course Code : BNS 102
Assignment Code: BNS 102/ TMA-1/2015
Maximum Marks – 100
Last date of submission : July 31, 2015 Section A:BIOCHEMISTRY (MAX. MARKS=50)
Note:
This Assignment has three parts i.e. Part A, B and C
Part A consists of one long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consists of five short answer questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
Part C consists of two objective type questions. Each question carries 5 marks. Part – A a) Why is it necessary to control blood glucose levels? Explain how is this control brought about?
b) Describe the test done to assess tolerance to glucose and the clinical interpretation of its result.(10+5=15) Part – B How are radioisotopes useful in the medical field? Briefly describe, giving specific examples.
(5)
3. a) Explain the difference between osmosis and dialysis.
b) How is dialysis useful in a clinical situation?
(5)
4. Nucleic acids are central to the very life process itself. Explain their role in living organisms.
(5)
5. How are peptides formed from amino acids? Mention the specific role of certain natural peptides.
(5)
6. Enzymes in blood have diagnostic importance. Illustrate it with specific examples.
(5) Part – C Fill in the Blanks:(½x10=5)
a) Muscle fatigue during heavy exercise is caused by accumulation of …………………
b) Dietary carbohydrates ………………… and gluconeogenesis are the main sources of glucose
in blood.
c) The major constituent of gallstones is …………………
d) In pyogenic meningitis the level of ………………… decreases in CSF.
e) Rennin is ………………… hydrolyzing enzyme.
f) Insufficient acid secretion in stomach is called …………………
g) Insulin and ………………… hormones have opposing action on blood glucose levels.
h) Use of anticoagulants is to be avoided while estimating ………………… levels in blood.
i) Proteins with many polypeptide chains are called ………………… proteins.
j) Deoxyribo nucleic acid (DNA) is ………………… stranded polynucleotide.
8. Match the items given in Column A with those given in Column B Column A Column B
a) Lonization i) Link different nucleotides in a nucleic acid
b) Interstitial fluid ii) Contain red pigment haemoglobin
c) Ketone bodies iii) Nephrotic Syndrome
d) Phosphodiester bonds iv) Energy ‘currency’ of cell
e) Coenzyme A v) Breakdown of RBCs to release their
contents
f) Erythrocytes vi) Fluid in between cells
g) Agglutination vii) Transport of molecules/ions against
concentration gradient
h) Protein in Urine viii) Glycosuria
i) Adenosine Tri Phosphate (ATP) ix) Clumping together of RBCs
j) Active transport x) Formation of ions by dissociation of
electrolytes
xi) Derived lipid
xii) Coenzyme form of pantothenic acid
xiii) Fluid inside cells Section B: Biophysics (Max.Marks=50)
Note: This Assignment has three parts i.e. Part A, B and C
Part A consists of one long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consists of five short answer questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
Part C consists of two objective type questions. Each question carries 5 marks. Part – A What is the power of accommodation and least distance of distinct vision?
b. Explain the image formation by the eye lens in a normal eye.
c. Describe the defect of vision and how are they corrected. Illustrate your answer with the help
of a diagram.(2+2+2+9=15) Part – B Describe the defects of vision. How are they corrected. Illustrate your answer with the help of
a diagram.(2+3=5)
3. a. Differentiate between density and relative density.
b. What is buoyant force?
c. Why underwater exercise are suggested for the rehabilitation of muscles and joints?(2+1+2=5)
4. a. How is heat lost from our body (explain diagrammatically)?
b. What does hypothalamus initiate if body temperature is increased due to heavy exercise?(4+1=5)
5. a. What is diathermy? In which condition is it effective?
b. Why is the OT uniform mostly cotton based?(2+3=5)
6. a. Explain the factors on which the flow of fluid through an orifice depends.
b. Describe the relationship between high blood pressure and thickening of arteries.(2+3=5) Part – C Place a tick mark () against ‘T’ if you consider the statement as true and ‘F’ if you consider
the statement as false.
(½x10=5)
i) An isotope which is artificially produced is generally unstable and is known as
radioisotope. (T/F)
ii) Ergosterol is a cholesterol derivative present in the stomach which produces
Vitamin D with the help of ultra violet light. (T/F)
iii) The three ossicles of ear namely the malleus, the incus and the stapes stretch across
the middle ear from the eardrum to the membrane of the oval window. (T/F)
iv) A device that converts light energy to mechanical energy or vice versa is called
a transducer. (T/F)
v) To covert temperature on Celsius Scale to Fahrenheit scale or vice versa the
formula used is F+32/100 = C/180. (T/F)
vi) Random error arises due to factors like incorrect caliberation of the instrument or
consistently incorrect procedures adopted by a nurse. (T/F)
vii) A nurse walking with good rubber soled shoes in the ward, as the heel strikes the
ground, the friction between the heel and the surface can make the foot slip. (T/F)
viii) Patients in bed for a long time develop bed sores because the heavier portions
press more firmly against the mattress than do the lighter portions and in turn receive
a greater reaction force. (T/F)
ix) The foetus inside the amniotic fluid in the uterus is protected till its birth because of
the Pascal’s law. (T/F) The constriction in the bore of the tube immediately above the bulb helps the column
of mercury to continue to show the maximum level even after use in a clinical
thermometer. (T/F)
8. Place a tick mark () against the most appropriate answer given under each statement:
(½x10=5)
a. Force acting per unit surface area is called:
i. Pressure
ii. Work
iii. Energy
iv. Power
b. While biting the human jaw acts as a lever of the:
i. 1st order
ii. 2nd order
iii. 3rd order
iv. None of these
c. Several forces act on the fractured leg of a patient in traction. The combined effect of these
forces into a single force is called as:
i. Magnetic force
ii. Gravitational force
iii. Resultant force
iv. Functional force d. On squeezing the bulb of the dropper the pressure created inside the dropper is:
i. Less than atmosphere
ii. More than atmosphere
iii. Equal to the atmosphere
iv. None of these
13
e. The seat of the dentist’s chair is placed over the larger piston and the smaller piston is operated
by a foot pedal on the principle of:
i. Charles law
ii. Pascal’s law
iii. Boyle’s law
iv. Dalton’s law f. Follicles of unwanted hair are destroyed by causing the cells of the follicle to disintegrate
chemically by:
i. Heating
ii. Cooling
iii. Electrolysis
iv. Mechanically
g. Rays absorbed by heavier materials like calcium and phosphorus and which can pass through
the tissues of human body and not through bones are:
i. Light rays
ii. Sound waves
iii. X-rays
iv. Infra-red rays
h. The physical quantity of the measurement 1.4 m corresponds to:
i. Length
ii. Mass
iii. Time
iv. Pressure
i. Volume of gas varies inversely with the pressure if the temperature is constant refers to the law
stated as:
i. Boyle’s law
ii. Pascal’s law
iii. Charles’s law
iv. Dalton’s law Electronic devices that consist of minute microphone that picks up sound waves and converts
them into electric current which is amplified and passes to a miniature loud speaker that fits
into the ear are called:
i. Transistor radio
ii. Hearing aid
iii. Amplifier
iv. Head phone APPLIED SCIENCES
Assignment – 2 ( Block 3, 4 & 5) Tutor Marked
(Microbiology and Nutrition and Dietetics)
Programme Code : B.Sc.N (PB)
Course Code : BNS 102
Assignment Code: BNS 102/ TMA-2/2015
Maximum Marks – 100
Last date of submission : August 31, 2015
Do Microbiology, Nutrition and Dietetics on Separate Sheets.
Section A: Microbiology (Max. Marks = 50) Note:
This Assignment has three parts i.e. Part A, B and C
Part A consists of two long answer questions. Each question carries 7 ½ marks.
Part B consists of five short answer questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
Part C consists of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2½ marks. Part – A a) Draw a labeled schematic diagram of a typical bacterial cell showing its various organelles.
b) Write one point of difference between bacteria and fungi.
c) How do you grow bacteria in the laboratory?
d) Enumerate various factors influencing the growth of bacteria.(2+1+2+2½=7½)
2. a) Name three viruses that can be transmitted through untested blood transfusion.
b) Give the morphology, route(s) of transmission and the disease/infection produced by any one
of the above mentioned viruses.
c) Explain the methods of prevention which are available against these infections.
d) Discuss how you would identify this disease/ infection in the laboratory.(2+1+2+2½=7½) Part – B Name the causative agents of any five of the following diseases. How are they transmitted
from the patient to a healthy person? (1x5=5)
a) Syphilis
b) Diphtheria
c) Bacillary Dysentery
d) Plague
e) Tetanus
f) Anthrax
4. Name the scientist who devised Gram’s stain? Give briefly its principle and procedure. Name
three gram positive and three gram negative bacteria.(2+1½+1½=5)
5. Give the general characters of Chlamydia. Name the diseases caused by them and mention
about their transmission from patient to a healthy person.(1+1+1½+1½=5) Define an antigen and antibody. Enumerate different antigen-antibody reactions, giving one
example of each type which is useful in laboratory diagnosis of microbial diseases.(1+1+3=5)
7. Define Fatty Acids. Explain with examples. State the functions of Polyunsaturated fatty acids.(1+2+2=5) Part – C Place a tick mark () against the most appropriate answer under each statement: (½x5=2½)
a) The viral genome contains:
i) DNA only, never RNA
ii) RNA only, never DNA
iii) DNA and RNA (both nucleic acid)
iv) DNA and RNA (both nucleic acid)
b) The most common method of reproduction in bacteria is:
i. Budding
ii. Conjugation
iii. Binary Fission
iv. Spore Formation
c) Portal of exit for hydrophobia is:
i. Urine
ii. Faeces
iii. Blood
iv. Saliva
d) The commonly responsible clostridium for food poisoning is/are:
i. Clostridium tetani
ii. Clostridium botulinum
iii. Clostridium perfringes
iv. Clostridium histolyticum One of the following is not a genera of spirochaetes:
i. Coxiella
ii. Treponema
iii. Borrelia
iv. Leptospira
9. Fill in the blanks: (½x5=2½)
a) The bacillus of Mycobacterium tuberculosis (1882) and Vibrio Cholerae (1883) was discovered
by …………………
b) The presence of primitive form of nucleus in bacteria is revealed by ………………… stain.
c) Enteric fever is caused by a bacterium named as …………………
d) Histoplasmosis is primarily a disease of reticulo-endothelial system caused by a fungus named
as …………………
e) The period between the entry of the organism in the body and appearance of clinical symptoms
is called as ………………… period. 10. Match the items given in column A with those given in Column B: (½x5=2½)
Column A Column B
a) Organelles of locomotion in bacteria i) Mesosomes
b) Principal sites of protein synthesis in bacterial cell ii) Ribosomes
c) Differential stain to stain acid fast bacilli iii) Flagella
d) Causative agent for Q fever iv) Albert Stain
e) Transmission of infection from the mother to the v) Ziehl Neelsen Stain
foetus before birth vi) Coxiella burneti
vii) Mycoplasma
viii) Congenital Infection
ix) Sub-clinical Infection Place a tick mark () against ‘T’ if you find the statement is true and against ‘F’ if you find the
statement is false.
(½x5=2½)
a) Mesosomes are the principal sites of the respiratory enzymes in a bacterial cell. (T/F)
b) Bacteria growing only in the absence of oxygen are called facultative anaerobes. (T/F)
c) Streptococci are gram positive cocci which occur in short or long chains. (T/F)
d) Cryptococeus neoformans is a yeast like capsulated fungus which causes meningitis. (T/F)
e) Exotoxins are produced chiefly by gram negative bacteria and are not excreted into their
surroundings. (T/F) Section B: Nutrition and Dietetics (50 marks)
Note: This Assignment has three parts i.e. Part A, B and C
Part A consists of two long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consists of five short answer questions. Each question carries 5 marks.
Part C consists of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2½ marks. Part – A Name three diseases caused by dietary deficiency and three diseases caused due to excessive
dietary intake. Suggest measures for management of one disease from each category.(3+3+4½+4½=15) Part – B
2. Discuss advantages of dietary survey in detail. Why is fibre important in daily diet? List important sources of fibre.(2½+2½=5)
4. Define hypothyroidism. What diet is suitable for such a patient?(2+3=5)
5. What is the significance of food laws and standards in promotion of public health? Suggest
ways for its effective implementation.(2½+2½=5)
6. What are the symptoms of hypoglycemia? Suggest the management of hypoglycemic patient.(2½+2½=5) Part – C Fill in the Blanks:
(½x10=5)
a) Cereals and tubers are rich sources of …………………..
b) Microorganisms responsible for food contamination can be categorized as Virus, Bacteria and
…………………..
c) Tape worm, hook worm etc. are known as ………………….. infestations.
d) Adulteration of argemone seeds in mustard oil causes …………………..
e) Overactivity of thyroid gland is known as …………………..
f) Hypolipidemia implies decreased levels of ………………….. in blood.
g) Cyclamates and B.V.O. are dangerous food …………………..
h) Isoleucin and lysine are important …………………..
i) Butter, ghee, vanaspati are rich sources of ………………….. fats.
j) Fruits and vegetables are abundant sources of vitamins and ………………….. Match the items given in Column A with those given in Column B:
(½x10=5)
Column A Column B
a) Low purine diet i) Low Carbohydrate Diet
b) Tetany ii) Toxic mushroom
c) Hyperglycemia iii) Cancer
d) Underweight iv) Food Adulteration
e) Phalloidine v) Milk
f) Nitrosamines vi) Gout
g) PFA Act vii) Calcium deficiency
h) Pasteurization viii) High calorie diet
i) Aflatoxins ix) Mercury
j) Industrial Pollutant x) Aspergillus flavus
xi) High calorie diet
xii) Genetic Change MATERNAL HEALTH NURSING
Assignment - 1 (Block 1 & 2) Tutor Marked
Programme Code: B.Sc.N (PB)
Course Code: BNS-103
Assignment Code: BNS 103/ TMA-1/2015
Maximum Marks - 100
Last date of submission: July 31, 2015 Note: This Assignment has three parts - Part A, B and C
Part A consists of two long answer questions. Each question carries 15 marks.
Part B consists of six short answer questions. Each question carries 10 marks.
Part C consists of four objective type questions. Each question carries 2½ marks. Part - A Enumerate the signs and symptoms of pregnancy as per following classification.
i) Presumptive signs and symptoms
ii) Probable signs and symptoms
iii) Positive signs and symptoms
b) Discuss different ways of diagnosing pregnancy.
c) Explain how as a midwife you would examine the progress of pregnancy to detect any risk
factors and provide need based care.(5+5+5=15)
2. Mrs. Meena , 26 years old primigravida at 34 weeks gestation is admitted with complaints of
High Blood Pressure (160/100 mm Hg) and generalized edema. She is diagnosed as having
eclampsia:
a) Define eclampsia.
b) Enumerate the signs and symptoms of impending eclampsia.
c) Describe the obstetrical and nursing management for Meena.(2+3+10=15) Part - B Explain causes of labour .
b) State the hormonal factors that cause onset of labour.
c) Describe nursing management of first stage of labour. (3+3+4=10)
4. a) Describe the physiology of lactation.
b) Enumerate the factors responsible for maintenance of normal lactation (draw diagram).
(5+5=10)
5. a) List the common medical problems of the newborn.
b) Discuss in detail the nursing management of hypothermia in newborn.
(2+8=10)
6. a) Describe placenta at term and write its function.
b) List abnormalities of placenta you would observe as a midwife.
(8+2=10) a) Define puerperium
b) Discuss the physiological changes that takes place in puerperium.
c) Describe the role of a nurse to prevent any complication during puerperium.
(1+5+4=10)
8. a) Enumerate the modes of transmission of HIV.
b) Discuss the nursing care of a woman with HIV and her baby during labour and delivery.
(2+8=10) COMMUNICATIVE ENGLISH
Assignment – I (Block 1 & 2) (Tutor Marked)
Programme Code: B.Sc.N (PB)
Course Code: BNS 104
Assignment Code: BNS 104/TMA-12013
Maximum Marks – 100
Last date of submission: July 31, 2015The anterior surface of the sacrum is :
i) Convex
ii) Concave
iii) Straight
iv) Round
10. Fill in the blanks:
(½x5=2½)
a) The common renal problems which occur in pregnancy are …………………..
and…………………
b) Pregnancy induced hypertension causes intrauterine growth retardation of the foetus due to
……………….
c) Preterm labour is defined as the labour which starts before …………..completed weeks of
gestation.
d) The other name of rapid delivery is …………………..
e) The fallopian tubes are also called as …………………..or …………………….. Match the statements given in Column A with the statement given in Column B:
(½x5=2½)
Column A Column B
a) Induced unconsciousness with analgesia i) Foetal membranes
b) Helps in fetal lung maturation ii) Taking up of cervix
c) Chorion and Amnion iii) Blood stained mucoid discharge
d) Effacement iv) Glucocorticoid therapy
e) Show v) General anaesthesia
vi) Regional anaesthesia
vii) A Maternal surface of placenta
12. Place a tick mark () against “T” if you consider the statement as true and “F” if you consider
the statement as false.
(½x5=2½)
a) The part of the foetus that presents at the cervix is known as presentation. (T/F)
b) Oligo-hydramnios may lead to the formation of spina bifida and trancheoesophegial fistula in
the newborn. (T/F)
c) During pregnancy the amount of iron needed by a mother is twice the normal. (T/F)
d) Moulding is localized area of oedema on fetal skull on vertex presentation. (T/F)
e) Fibroid uterus in pregnancy is a condition in which there are benign tumours of muscular and
fibrious tissue. (T/F) dear student if you want this solved assignment the please kindly email me for request of solved assignment on my email id solve zone@gmail.com after received your email with your qustion atteched then we can reply you price of solve this assignment
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