IBMS solve assignment for Marketing Management (Each Question for ½ marks)
Short Note – 5 marks Multiple Choices ____ 1. Consumer demand includes the attributes and needs of
a. suppliers. c. competitors.
b. final and industrial consumers. d. stockholders.
____ 2. Which of these is NOT an example of a marketing goal?
a. To reduce labor costs c. To increase sales
b. To elect a public official d. To increase market share
____ 3. When a grocery chain offers customers a “no questions asked, money-back guarantee” on all of the products
it sells, it is applying the
a. marketing concept. c. theory of exchange.
b. sales era of marketing. d. concept of publics’ demand.
____ 4. The basic building block of a strategic marketing plan is the
a. organization mission statement. c. short-run plan.
b. SWOT analysis. d. strategic business unit.
____ 5. According to the Porter generic strategy model, a firm’s strategy is based on
a. competitive advantage and competitive scope.
b. outsourcing opportunities.
c. cost advantages.
d. degree of product differentiation.
____ 6. Important information about the buying behavior of consumers that is useful in better targeting goods and
services is available through
a. single-source data. c. data-base marketing.
b. a commercial data base. d. a press clipping service. ____ 7. A type of research in which one or more factors are manipulated under controlled conditions is a(n)
a. experiment. c. human observation.
b. semantic differential. d. mechanical observation.
____ 8. According to the marketing vice-president of a regional soda manufacturer, “We need to better understand the
reason(s) for the comparatively slow growth of our bottled water brand relative to our major competitors.”
This executive should focus on which stage of the marketing research process?
a. Generation of primary data c. Issue (problem) definition
b. Examination of secondary data d. Data analysis
____ 9. Which ethical theory asserts that individual and organizational actions are proper only if they yield the
greatest good for the most people?
a. Duty-based c. Utilitarianism
b. Virtue ethics d. Egoism
____ 10. The E-mail equivalent of junk mail is b. E-junk. d. spam.
____ 11. Final consumers purchase goods and services for
a. personal, family, or household use.
b. personal use.
c. family use.
d. household use.
____ 12. The North American Industry Classification System
a. replaces the Standard Industrial Classification.
b. does not cover retail trade.
c. does not cover wholesale trade.
d. does not cover foreign organizational consumers.
____ 13. Which statement about government as a consumer is NOT correct?
a. Government expenditures (federal, state, and local) equal $2.2 trillion annually.
b. Data on all U.S. government expenditures are compiled by the Census Bureau.
c. There is little assistance given by governmental units to assist small firms seeking
d. North American Industry Classification System codes exist for governmental units.
____ 14. Which marketing strategy seeks to appeal to multiple consumer segments with a distinctive marketing
strategy for each segment?
a. Segmented marketing c. Differentiated marketing
b. Concentrated marketing d. Clustered marketing ____ 15. Which comparative advantage do firms in monopolistic competition seek?
a. Appeal to innovators c. Derived demand
b. Low perceived risk d. Product differentiation
____ 16. Which statement concerning trademark protection is NOT correct?
a. Trademark law covers goods, but not services.
b. Trademark registration is voluntary.
c. A multinational firm must register its trademarks in every country in which it operates.
d. A surname cannot be registered.
____ 17. An industrywide classification system used for inventory management and marketing research is
b. the Optical Scanning Character Recognition system.
c. the Nielsen Scanning System.
d. the Universal Product Code (UPC).
____ 18. If a firm’s brands are viewed as interchangeable by consumers, they will appear ____ on a company product
a. on opposite sides c. in separate clusters
b. in the same cluster d. near competitors’ products
____ 19. The perishability attribute of services requires companies to
a. maintain a detached service provider-consumer relationship.
b. carefully match supply and demand for their services.
c. train employees in human relations skills.
d. develop tangible representations for their services. ____ 20. Which of these is closest to a pure service on the goods/services continuum?
a. Computer software designed to print out the appropriate tax returns
b. A computer sold with pre-loaded “ready-to-run” tax-return software
c. Computer software designed to print out the appropriate tax returns plus a toll-free
customer support hotline d. An accountant providing advice on an individual’s tax return
____ 21. The labor intensity involved with a service often increases if that service
a. is provided at the customer’s home or place of business.
b. uses soft technologies.
c. uses self-service operations.
d. is deregulated by a governmental agency.
____ 22. Which of these best illustrates a minor innovation?
a. A modification of an existing product or an innovation that the consumer perceives as
b. An alteration in or extension of a firm’s existing products
c. Items not previously marketed by any firm
d. Items not previously marketed by a firm that have been marketed by others
____ 23. Which of these best illustrates a major innovation?
a. A modification of an existing product or an innovation that the consumer perceives as
b. An alteration in or extension of a firm’s existing products
c. Items not previously sold by any firm
d. Items not previously sold by a firm that have been marketed by others
____ 24. In which stage of the new-product planning process is a consumer asked “Is the idea easy to understand?” and
“Would you buy the product?”
a. Idea generation c. Brainstorming
b. Product screening d. Concept testing a. Idea generation c. Brainstorming
b. Product screening d. Concept testing
____ 25. Although a company had planned to obtain an annual return on investment of 15 percent on a product, total
revenues on the product were less than the firm’s production and marketing costs. The product should be
classified as a(n)
a. short-run failure.
b. absolute product failure only.
c. relative product failure only.
d. absolute and relative product failure.
____ 26. A company uses weights of 5 for general characteristics, 4 for marketing characteristics, and 3 for production
characteristics. Within these categories, each product idea can be scored on the basis of 1 (outstanding) to 10
(very poor). If a potential new product scores 3.0, 2.0, and 2.5 on the three characteristics, respectively, its
overall rating is
a. 2.5. b. 3.1. c. 24.5. d. 30.5.
____ 27. A firm needs to consider the speed of acceptance by consumers and retailers, plan its overall marketing mix,
and develop its positioning during which stage of the product life cycle?
a. Commercialization c. Test marketing
b. Business analysis d. Product development
____ 28. What type of warehouse is most appropriate for a firm with stable inventory levels throughout the year?
a. Public b. Private c. Bonded d. Field
____ 29. Vertical integration (such as a manufacturer’s undertaking retail responsibilities through ownership) is an
example of a(n)
a. contractual channel arrangement.
b. administered channel arrangement.
c. direct channel of distribution.
d. indirect channel of distribution.
____ 30. Which concept is central to a pulling strategy?
a. Channel conflict among channel members
b. Derived demand c. Vertical integration by retailers
d. Distribution efficiency through the elimination of some channel members
____ 31. Which of these is a characteristic of a manufacturer’s/service provider’s sales office?
a. No inventory is carried.
b. The sales office includes facilities for warehousing goods.
c. The sales office includes facilities for the manufacture of goods.
d. The sales office sells goods to final consumers.
____ 32. Which wholesaler receives goods on consignment, accumulates them from local markets, and arranges for
their sale in a central market location?
a. A commission merchant
b. A manufacturers’/service providers’ agent
c. A selling agent
d. A drop shipper
____ 33. While an agent would like to recommend a given insurance company to a local business to receive a sales
contest award, the agent is concerned that the insurance company’s premium is 10 percent above the market
average price. This illustrates
a. derived demand.
b. selling TO the wholesaler.
c. selling THROUGH the wholesaler.
d. the wholesaler’s being “in the middle.” ____ 34. Agricultural produce is typically handled by which two types of wholesalers?
a. Rack jobbers and franchise wholesalers
b. General-merchandise and specialty-merchandise wholesalers
c. Wholesale cooperatives and commission merchants
d. Food brokers and rack jobbers
____ 35. The food-oriented retailer with the largest average store size and the broadest product mix is a
a. conventional supermarket. c. convenience store.
b. food-based superstore. d. supercenter.
____ 36. Which unplanned shopping area generally contains at least one branch department store and a broad grouping
of specialty and convenience stores?
a. Neighborhood shopping center c. Neighborhood business district
b. Regional shopping center d. Secondary business district
____ 37. If a retailer adds product lines that are unrelated to each other and the firm’s original business, it is involved
a. full-line retailing. c. the wheel of retailing.
b. scrambled merchandising. d. balanced tenancy.
____ 38. To sustain their maturity, some membership warehouse clubs now accept credit cards and offer home delivery
through their Web site. This illustrates
a. atmospherics. c. scrambled merchandising.
b. a self-fulfilling prophecy. d. the wheel of retailing. ____ 39. A major difference between direct marketing and direct selling is that direct selling involves
a. personal contact with consumers.
b. technological advances such as interactive video shopping.
c. mail and telephone ordering by consumers.
d. television and radio advertising.
____ 40. Convenience goods are most likely to be emphasized in a
a. central business district. c. string.
b. regional shopping center. d. neighborhood business district.
____ 41. Mass and personal communication that is image-directed is a. public relations. c. publicity.
b. word-of-mouth communication. d. institutional advertising.
____ 42. Advertising objectives can be best classified as ____ and ____-oriented.
a. demand, image c. primary, institutional
b. behavioral, marketing d. sales dollars, market share
____ 43. Planning, implementing, and controlling the personal sales function is conducted in which activity?
a. The selling process c. The buyer-seller dyad
b. The sales-expense budget d. Sales management
____ 44. Which of the following salesperson-oriented activities is NOT part of sales management?
a. Salesperson motivation
b. Salesperson evaluation
c. Sales-promotion material development
d. Salesperson training
____ 45. Proprietary drug makers often use detail persons to describe appropriate uses, recommended dosages, and
explain the possible side effects of new drugs. Although they distribute written material and samples for
patient use, detail persons do not actually sell products. What type of salesperson is involved here?
a. Order taker c. Missionary salesperson
b. Sales engineer d. Service salesperson
____ 46. When an industry becomes deregulated, the pricing environment shifts from ____-controlled to ____-
a. market, government c. government, company
b. government, market d. company, market 47. Through ____, a firm alters prices frequently in response to changes in cost or demand.
a. an odd-pricing strategy c. price lining
b. variable pricing d. customary pricing
____ 48. In setting prices, a computer manufacturer considers questions such as these: “What profit margin does a price
level allow for each channel member, including our firm?” “Can we charge 10 percent above the market due
to our excellent service department and reputation?” “Is our market price sensitive?” This firm is using
a. demand-based pricing.
b. cost-based pricing.
c. demand- and cost-based pricing.
d. demand-, cost-, and competition-based pricing.
____ 49. A firm can produce short-run profits at the expense of long-term profitability by
a. cutting back on new product planning expenditures.
b. having a blurred image.
c. introducing major new product innovations.
d. allocating more resources to the SBUs having the greatest opportunities.
____ 50. A firm wants to study the efficiency of its various distribution channels (in terms of computing gross profit as
a percentage of revenues). What technique should it use?
a. Sales exception reporting c. Marketing cost analysis
b. A horizontal marketing audit d. The 80-20 principle True/False ____ 51. Customer service cannot be used by a firm as a means of differentiating its products from those of
____ 52. Demand regulation is very important for services (such as car washes, telephone usage, and accounting
services) since services cannot be inventoried or stored.
____ 53. During the sales era, marketing personnel are unimportant because demand is so high and competition is so
limited. ____ 54. In the marketing department era, the marketing department is the most important department in a firm.
____ 55. When a local real-estate brokerage firm says that it “limits its activities to the sale and rental of cooperatives
and condominiums in a five-town area,” it is outlining its basic marketing strategy.
____ 56. Mail surveys are useful in reaching dispersed respondents and in minimizing interviewer bias.
____ 57. A disposable product represents a form of product-related ethical issue.
____ 58. For the most part, the terms “warranty” and “guarantee” have the same meaning.
____ 59. The most severe action a country can take to restrict foreign products from entering its market is a trade
____ 60. Electronic data interchange is generally associated with relationship marketing.
____ 61. An outer-directed person is attracted to products that perform well functionally and that are challenging.
____ 62. Of the various lifestyles, the “me” generation is most concerned with individuality and self-expression.
____ 63. In vendor analysis, an organizational consumer rates suppliers on the basis of quality, service, and price.
____ 64. For organizational consumers, conflict resolution is more likely in autonomous decision making than in joint
____ 65. Both organizational and final consumers can be described in demographic terms. ____ 66. While value analysis looks at product specifications, vendor analysis relates to consumer satisfaction with
____ 67. In differentiated marketing, a firm typically aims its product at the mass market.
____ 68. According to the Social Styles model, both analyticals and expressives are risk avoiders.
____ 69. Through licensing agreements, a small and relatively unknown manufacturer can increase its degree of
____ 70. Some private brands have both better images and are more heavily advertised than some manufacturer brands.
____ 71. A core service for a no-frills car rental chain may be viewed as a peripheral service by a full-service car rental
____ 72. A fundamental task of service marketers is to position their services less tangibly.
____ 73. A fad product life-cycle curve represents a product with quick popularity and a sudden decline.
____ 74. A firm would first identify its basic marketing strategy including packaging, branding, and product
positioning in the product development stage of the new-product planning process.
____ 75. Commercialization involves implementing the total marketing plan and developing adequate production
capacity. ____ 76. Studies of new-product failure by different researchers may reach different conclusions depending upon
whether the various researchers define failure on an absolute or relative basis.
____ 77. Brainstorming among channel members for new product ideas is an example of a laboratory-oriented source.
____ 78. Exclusive distribution can be characterized by broad market coverage (wide channels).
____ 79. The total-cost approach may be used by firms to justify the relatively high cost of air freight.
____ 80. Electronic data interchange is an integral part of a just-in-time inventory system.
____ 81. The smallest category of wholesalers in terms of both sales and number of establishments is agents and
brokers. ____ 82. A manufacturer engaged in selling TO its wholesalers illustrates the concept of pull marketing.
____ 83. Many leased departments specialize in goods and services in which the lessor has little expertise (such as fine
jewelry or photographic studios).
____ 84. A category killer is a form of specialty store.
____ 85. The wearout rate depends on the frequency of communications, the timing of a message, and the number of
different messages used by the company.
____ 86. A company using the objective-and-task technique of promotional budgeting would vary its objectives and
tasks over a product’s life-cycle stages.
____ 87. Public relations goals are generally image-oriented.
____ 88. It is generally much more difficult to evaluate a public relations campaign’s success or failure than an
____ 89. The buyer-seller dyad operates better if there are similarities in the characteristics of salesperson and
____ 90. The popularity of notebook computers has eliminated the need for field sales personnel in most selling
____ 91. Blind prospecting and lead prospecting can be used with both the canned sales presentation and the needsatisfaction
approach. ____ 92. At the market-equilibrium price, the quantity demanded equals the supply offered.
____ 93. When consumer demand is inelastic, price elasticity is always less than one.
____ 94. In most cases, retailers cannot be required to adhere to the list prices suggested by manufacturers or
____ 95. The sale of gray market goods is illegal in the United States.
____ 96. The success of a nonprice-competition strategy will be directly related to consumer perceptions as to the
distinctiveness of a company and its goods and services.
____ 97. The responsibility for transportation charges is outlined in geographic pricing agreements.
____ 98. When 7-Eleven learns (through sales analysis) that its best-selling products are such items as gasoline,
beverages, and groceries, 7-Eleven is avoiding the iceberg principle.
____ 99. A firm could use a marketing audit to annually evaluate the appropriateness of its current organizational
____ 100. Marketing myopia is a warning sign of a poorly developed marketing plan. Short Notes
Each 5 marks 101. a. Describe the marketing mix for a retailer specializing in catering parties held at consumers’ home or office
b. Describe the marketing mix for a camera dealer specializing in used cameras, lenses, and accessories sold
to professional photographers and advanced amateurs.
102. Differentiate between the Boston Consulting Group matrix, the General Electric business screen, and the
Porter generic strategy model. (Hint: look at market share and market growth rate).
103. Describe the use of data-base marketing by a Web-based retailer of electronics.
104. a. What appeals/benefits/motives should be stressed to inner-directed persons considering the purchase of
outerwear? Contrast this with appeals to outer-directed persons.
b. What appeals/benefits/motives should be stressed to inner-directed persons considering the purchase of an
exercise machine? Contrast this with appeals to outer-directed persons.
105. Explain how a plastics manufacturer could apply end-use analysis in developing a sales forecast.
106. Categorize a private college, a car rental firm, and the Girl Scouts using the seven-way service classification
system. Explain your answers.
107. Describe five potential causes of channel conflict. Be sure to identify the conflicting goals of the
manufacturer/service provider and the distribution intermediary. 108. Develop a methodology to assess the wearout rate of an advertising campaign.
109. a. Describe the major strengths and weaknesses of publicity versus advertising.
b. Why must publicity be viewed as complementary to advertising and not as a substitute for it?
c. What are the best uses of publicity? Explain your answer.
110. What is the role of market segmentation in yield management pricing? Describe its ideal uses and potential
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